Free tool · Obligation tree

Australian club compliance,
in plain English.

The 85 obligations across 9statutory categories that Venue Axis maps internally — browseable, filterable, with citations to the live legislation. Each obligation is tagged with a strategic-tier label so the boundary between “what the platform does” and “what the venue's broader compliance ecosystem does” is structurally explicit.

Working draft, not legal advice

Plain-English summaries are drafts pending counsel review. Citations are authoritative — treat them as the source of truth and the plain-English text as a navigation aid. For a legal interpretation of any obligation, talk to your counsel. Obligations marked “External responsibility” sit outside Venue Axis's product scope by design.

Showing 85 of 85 obligations.

NSW · Liquor & Gaming NSW

Gaming Machines Act 2001 (NSW)

Gaming Machines Act 2001 (NSW) and Gaming Machines Regulation 2019 (NSW)

Offer self-exclusion to patrons showing problem-gambling behaviour

Does (triggered)

Staff observing indicators of problem gambling must offer the patron information about self-exclusion and, where requested, facilitate it.

Frequency: per-incident · Binds: rgo, venue
Consequence of breach: Failure to offer self-exclusion in the presence of clear indicators is a licensing concern and can contribute to a duty-of-care civil claim.
Read full reference →

Responsible Gambling Officer on duty during gaming operations

Does (enforced)

A trained Responsible Gambling Officer must be on duty whenever gaming machines are operating. The shift must be logged so the venue can prove RGO presence on demand.

Frequency: per-shift · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Operating gaming machines without an RGO on duty is a direct licensing breach and a common inspection failure point.
Read full reference →

Welfare interventions and duty of care

Supports

Venues must observe patrons for signs of gambling harm and intervene where necessary — including welfare checks, breaks in play, and referral to support services.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, rgo
Consequence of breach: Failure to intervene can contribute to licence-review action and civil liability.
Read full reference →

Monthly Shutdown Log Review

Tracks

Review the EGM shutdown log monthly to confirm all mandatory close periods, regulator-directed shutdowns, and fault closures were correctly recorded and actioned.

Frequency: monthly · Binds: gm
Consequence of breach: Maximum 100 penalty units under s.39 for operating an EGM during the general 6-hour shutdown period; further 100 PU exposure under s.42(4) for breach of an approved variation. Failure to maintain accurate shutdown records is an inspection finding and may indicate non-compliance with mandatory close obligations.
Read full reference →

EGM machine count within approved limit

Tracks

A registered club must not operate more EGMs than authorised by its gaming machine entitlement. In NSW the statutory cap for registered clubs is 450 EGMs.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Unauthorised machines are seized; fines apply; licence conditions may be varied.
Read full reference →

Mandatory 6-hour shutdown — gaming machines

Does (enforced)

A hotelier or registered club must ensure each approved gaming machine on its premises is not operated for the purposes of gambling between 4 am and 10 am on each day of the week (the "general 6-hour shutdown period"), subject to any approved 3-hour weekend variation (s.40), hardship dispensation (s.40A), or early-opener provision (s.41).

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Maximum 100 penalty units per s.39; further 100 PU exposure under s.42(4) for breach of an approved variation. Note: Gaming Machines Amendment (Mandatory Shutdown Period) Bill 2025 proposing midnight–10am shutdown is NOT law as at 2026-05-05.
Read full reference →

Cash-input limit on new electronic gaming machines ($500)

Tracks

All electronic gaming machines installed on or after 1 July 2023, and all approvals issued (except bug fixes), must implement a $500 cash-input limit (BKNTLIM = NSW $500). When the credit balance reaches $500, the machine must stop accepting tickets, coins, notes and CCCE transfers. The cap is not retrospective — pre-1-July-2023 machines remain at the historic $5,000 limit. The Star Sydney casino is not subject to this circular.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: venue, gm, ceo
Consequence of breach: Indirect via s.62/s.63/s.64 declaration regime — a non-compliant machine is not approved gaming equipment, exposing the venue to GMA ss.10–14 entitlement-regime offences for keeping/operating unapproved equipment.
Read full reference →

No per-denomination banknote-acceptor prohibition (NSW)

External responsibility

As of 5 May 2026, NSW gaming machines may accept any banknote denomination approved by the Authority for use in the machine (GMA s.80(3)(b)). There is no statutory, regulatory, or technical-standards prohibition on a gaming machine accepting $50 or $100 notes specifically. The cash-input control mechanism is the BKNTLIM credit-balance cap (see gma-nsw-cash-input-cap-new-machines), not a per-denomination prohibition. The original calibration pack's "s.47C $50/$100 prohibition" claim was unsourced; s.47C governs ATM/EFTPOS facilities, not note acceptors.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue
Consequence of breach: No obligation; row exists for audit-trail purposes only.
Read full reference →

ATM/EFTPOS line of sight from gaming areas

Does (enforced)

A hotelier or registered club must not permit a cash dispensing facility to be visible from an approved gaming machine, or from within / from an entrance to or exit from a gaming area in the hotel or registered club.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Maximum 50 penalty units per cl.28(1) contravention.
Read full reference →

Reverse line of sight — gaming machines and jackpot monitors not visible from CDF

Does (enforced)

A hotelier or registered club must not permit (a) an approved gaming machine or part of one, (b) a monitor used to display the jackpot prize from an authorised progressive system, or (c) an entrance to or exit from a gaming area, to be visible from a cash dispensing facility.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Maximum 50 penalty units per cl.28(2) contravention.
Read full reference →

CDF 5-metre radius from gaming-area entrance/exit

Does (enforced)

A cash dispensing facility must be located outside a 5-metre radius of any entrance to or exit from a gaming area in the hotel or registered club, unless the Secretary has granted an approval under cl.28(6) — only available where compliance is impossible due to EPA Act 1979 / WHS Act 2011 contraventions, and only for the furthest possible accessible location.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Maximum 50 penalty units per cl.28(3) contravention. Approval pathway under cl.28(4)–(7) requires written application, Secretary determination, and written notice; Secretary may vary, revoke or suspend the approval (cl.28(8)).
Read full reference →

Signage for CDF — not visible from gaming machine or gaming area

Does (enforced)

A hotelier or registered club must not permit signage advertising or giving directions to a cash dispensing facility that is visible from (a) an approved gaming machine, or (b) any part of a gaming area in the hotel or registered club.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Maximum 50 penalty units per cl.28A contravention.
Read full reference →

Gaming machine signage/advertising on or visible from CDF

Does (enforced)

A hotelier or registered club must not permit signage or advertising about gaming machines that is (a) located on or part of a cash dispensing facility (including a digital display), or (b) visible from a cash dispensing facility. cl.28B(2): does not apply if the signage/advertising is a notice for the purposes of, and in accordance with, cl.24.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Maximum 50 penalty units per cl.28B(1) contravention.
Read full reference →

Gambling incident register — four reportable categories

Does (enforced)

The venue must keep a gambling incident register in a form approved by the Secretary and record information about reportable gambling incidents in accordance with Division 4 of Part 4 of the Regulation. cl.50K(3) defines four categories: (a) a patron displaying behaviour indicating they are experiencing or at risk of experiencing gambling harm; (b) a patron, or a person identifying as a family member, asking for information about a self-exclusion scheme or intervention; (c) a breach or attempted breach of a self-exclusion scheme; (d) an offence, alleged offence, or incident involving a minor.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: venue, rgo, gm
Consequence of breach: Maximum 50 penalty units per cl.50K(2) for failing to keep the register or record incidents.
Read full reference →

Incident register — 24 hour calendar-hours SLA

Does (enforced)

A reportable gambling incident must be recorded in the gambling incident register as soon as practicable but no later than 24 hours after the incident occurs (cl.50K(3) opening words). Details of action taken in response to the incident must also be recorded as soon as practicable but no later than 24 hours after the incident occurs (cl.50K(4)). The 24-hour clock is calendar hours, not business hours — the regulation uses "24 hours" without qualification.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: rgo, gm
Consequence of breach: Failure to record within 24 calendar hours feeds into cl.50K(2) inspection findings (max 50 penalty units).
Read full reference →
CTH · AUSTRAC

AML/CTF Act 2006 (Cth)

Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorism Financing Act 2006 (Cth) and Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorism Financing Rules Instrument 2007 (No. 1)

Maintain a documented AML/CTF programme (Part A)

Does (enforced)

The venue must have a written AML/CTF programme document covering risk assessment, governance, training, independent review, and transaction reporting obligations. The programme must be kept current.

Frequency: annual · Binds: venue, board, ceo
Consequence of breach: Civil penalty — up to several million dollars per contravention for corporations.
Read full reference →

Periodic ML/TF risk assessment

Does (enforced)

The venue must conduct and document a money-laundering / terrorism-financing risk assessment covering customer types, designated services, delivery channels, and jurisdictions. The assessment must be revisited when circumstances change.

Frequency: annual · Binds: venue, ceo, board
Consequence of breach: Civil penalty; inability to justify CDD and transaction thresholds.
Read full reference →

Independent evaluation of AML/CTF programme

Supports

The programme must be evaluated by an independent party (internal audit, external auditor, or consultant) at least once every three years, with a written evaluation report delivered to the governing body and the senior manager responsible under s.26P.

Frequency: annual · Binds: venue, board
Consequence of breach: Ongoing contravention of Rules; AUSTRAC enforcement risk.
Read full reference →

Customer Due Diligence at enrolment

Does (enforced)

Before providing a designated service above the threshold, the venue must identify the customer and verify their identity using reliable and independent documentation.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: venue, rgo, gm
Consequence of breach: Civil penalty; designated service provided without CDD is itself a contravention.
Read full reference →

Ongoing Customer Due Diligence (OCDD)

Does (triggered)

The venue must conduct ongoing due diligence on customers, monitor transactions for consistency with the customer profile, and update the CDD information when triggers occur.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Failure to detect and act on anomalous behaviour; AUSTRAC enforcement.
Read full reference →

Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) triggers

Does (triggered)

Where a customer or transaction presents higher ML/TF risk (e.g. PEP, high value, unusual pattern) the venue must apply enhanced due diligence measures.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Contravention of Rules; missed SMR triggers.
Read full reference →

Suspicious Matter Reports (SMRs)

Does (triggered)

Where the venue forms a suspicion on reasonable grounds about a customer, transaction, or attempted transaction, it must lodge a Suspicious Matter Report with AUSTRAC within the prescribed timeframe (24 hours for terrorism financing, 3 business days otherwise).

Frequency: on-event · Binds: venue, gm, ceo
Consequence of breach: Civil penalty; failure to lodge is a strict-liability contravention.
Read full reference →

AUSTRAC enrolment as reporting entity

Does (enforced)

The venue must enrol with AUSTRAC and keep its enrolment details current. Changes to beneficial ownership, key personnel, or contact details must be notified within the prescribed timeframe.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: ceo, venue
Consequence of breach: Unenrolled entity cannot lawfully provide designated services.
Read full reference →

Notify AUSTRAC of compliance officer appointment

Does (enforced)

The appointed AML/CTF compliance officer must be notified to AUSTRAC and changes to that appointment notified within the prescribed timeframe.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: ceo, venue
Consequence of breach: Contravention of Rules if notification is late or missing.
Read full reference →

Personnel due diligence

Does (enforced)

The venue must conduct appropriate due diligence on any person it employs or engages to perform AML/CTF functions (screening, ongoing monitoring) — covering employees, contractors, agents and outsourced providers, per AUSTRAC's post-reform "personnel" framing.

Frequency: annual · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Contravention of Rules; exposure to internal fraud and insider risk.
Read full reference →

Tipping-off offence — s.123

Does (enforced)

It is an offence to disclose information about an SMR (or that an SMR is required), or about a s.49(1) or s.49B(2) notice, to any person other than an AUSTRAC entrusted person, where the disclosure could reasonably be expected to prejudice an investigation. Two statutory exceptions: (1) s.123(4) crime-prevention disclosure by legal practitioners, accountants, or persons specified in the Rules — defendant bears evidential burden; (2) s.123(5) information-sharing among reporting entities for ML/TF/proliferation-financing/serious-crime detection, deterrence, or disruption — subject to conditions in regulations.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: rgo, gm, ceo, venue, board, director
Consequence of breach: Natural person: imprisonment for 2 years, or 120 penalty units, or both (s.123(1)). Body corporate: up to 600 penalty units by operation of Crimes Act 1914 (Cth) s.4B(3) (5× the natural-person maximum; no contrary intention appears in s.123). Note: s.123 is a criminal offence, not a civil-penalty provision — the s.175(4)–(5) civil-penalty caps (100,000 PU body corporate / 20,000 PU non-body-corporate) do NOT apply.
Read full reference →

Keep-open notice — record and suspend default CDD

Does (triggered)

A senior member of a qualifying agency may issue a Form 1 keep-open notice requiring the venue to continue providing a designated service to a specified customer in support of a serious-offence investigation (≥2 years imprisonment). When a keep-open notice is in force, the venue is exempt from s.26G/s.28/s.30 obligations to the extent compliance would alert the customer to the investigation. The platform records the Form 1, the expiry date, and any Form 3 extensions, and suspends default CDD/EDD treatment for the affected customer for the duration.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: ceo, gm, venue
Consequence of breach: Failing to comply with an in-force keep-open notice is a breach of the agency's notice and may obstruct a serious-offence investigation. Conversely, applying default CDD or providing tipping-off-eligible disclosures while a keep-open notice is in force exposes staff to s.123 (tipping-off) liability.
Read full reference →

Keep-open notice — procedural default at expiry

Does (enforced)

A keep-open notice ends by operation of law on the earlier of (i) the 6-month ceiling, or (ii) the day the issuing agency confirms the investigation has ended. Without an in-force Form 3 extension or AUSTRAC-CEO-approved further extension, the venue auto-resumes default CDD/EDD for the affected customer at the 6-month ceiling. The platform fires a 14-day pre-expiry reminder to the GM and records a forced-input decision artefact at every expiry transition.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: gm, venue
Consequence of breach: Holding keep-open mode beyond the 6-month ceiling without a Form 3 risks indefinite CDD suspension — incoherent with the AML/CTF Act's purpose. Auto-resuming too early risks tipping off the customer if an extension was issued but not yet received.
Read full reference →

PEP screening — three-tier framework

Does (triggered)

The Rules establish a three-tier PEP framework: foreign politically exposed person (always triggers enhanced CDD); domestic politically exposed person (triggers enhanced CDD only where ML/TF risk is high); international organisation politically exposed person (same treatment as domestic). For each PEP, the venue must establish on reasonable grounds the source of the PEP's wealth and the source of the PEP's funds. A foreign PEP who has ceased the position for ≥12 months is treated as a domestic PEP (s.6-23(3)) for the purposes of initial CDD where their status arises from the same foreign country.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: rgo, gm, ceo, venue
Consequence of breach: Civil penalty for failing to apply enhanced CDD to a foreign PEP, or for failing to apply it to a high-risk domestic/international-organisation PEP. Senior-manager approval is required where a previously-PEP customer continues to receive designated services per Rule 6-23(5) (programme requirement).
Read full reference →
CTH · Office of the Australian Information Commissioner (OAIC)

Privacy Act 1988 (Cth)

Privacy Act 1988 (Cth), Schedule 1 — Australian Privacy Principles

APP 6 — Use and disclosure limited to collection purpose

Does (enforced)

Personal information collected for one purpose may only be used or disclosed for a secondary purpose in specified circumstances (consent, related purpose, law enforcement, etc.).

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: OAIC determination; civil penalty for serious or repeated interference.
Read full reference →
INDUSTRY · ClubSafe / scheme operator

MVSE Scheme (NSW)

Multi-Venue Self-Exclusion Scheme (ClubSafe / participating industry bodies, NSW)

Venue participation in MVSE

Does (enforced)

Participating venues must register and maintain active credentials with the MVSE scheme operator and access the shared self-exclusion register.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Loss of access to shared SE register; scheme expulsion; reputational risk with regulator.
Read full reference →

Log SE breaches to the MVSE portal

Does (triggered)

When a self-excluded person attempts to enter a participating venue, the venue must log the breach in the MVSE portal so other venues are notified.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: venue, rgo
Consequence of breach: Scheme rules breach; undermines the multi-venue deterrent effect.
Read full reference →

Honour the shared self-exclusion register

Does (enforced)

Participating venues must treat self-exclusions logged in the MVSE register as equivalent to their own self-exclusions and refuse entry accordingly.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, rgo
Consequence of breach: Scheme expulsion; potential GMA s.49 breach if the self-exclusion is also registered under the Act.
Read full reference →
NSW · Liquor & Gaming NSW

Liquor Act 2007 (NSW)

Liquor Act 2007 (NSW) and Liquor Regulation 2018 (NSW)

Liquor Act incident register — late-trade conditional

Does (enforced)

If the sale or supply of liquor after midnight on the licensed premises is authorised at least once a week on a regular basis, it is a condition of the licence that the licensee maintains an incident register in the form approved by the Secretary. The register must record violence/anti-social behaviour, immediate-vicinity incidents, s.77 turn-outs, and any prescribed kinds. Inspection rights and 3-year retention also live at s.72L. Many community/registered clubs without late-trade authorisation do NOT have an automatic s.72L obligation.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Breach of licence condition; inspection finding; potential for licence-condition variation. Subsection-to-penalty mapping deferred to counsel.
Read full reference →

No supply of liquor to intoxicated persons

Does (enforced)

A licensee, manager, employee or agent must not supply liquor to a person who is intoxicated on the licensed premises. Staff are trained in Responsible Service of Alcohol (RSA) under the existing lgnsw-codes RSA cert obligation; refusal-of-service judgement is the floor staff member's in-the-moment call.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: rgo, gm, venue
Consequence of breach: Subsection-to-penalty mapping deferred to counsel. Common in inspection findings; can result in fines, demerit points against the licence, and (in serious or repeated cases) licence suspension.
Read full reference →

Late-hour entry declarations

Tracks

The Secretary may declare a precinct or area to be subject to a late-hour entry restriction (s.87). When in force, no patron may enter the premises after the declared time except in accordance with the declaration (s.88). Provisions for making, varying, and revoking declarations are at ss.89–90. Declaration scope and conditions vary; the venue must consult any current declaration affecting its area.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Subsection-to-penalty mapping deferred to counsel. Typical exposure: licence-condition breach + demerit points.
Read full reference →

Authority closure orders

Tracks

The Authority (or in some circumstances a senior police officer) may make a short-term closure order (s.82) or, after a hearing, a long-term closure order (s.84) requiring the licensed premises to cease trading for a specified period. Failing to comply is an offence under s.82(6) or s.84(7) and is a category 1 demerit offence under the s.4 definition.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: ceo, gm, venue
Consequence of breach: Offence under s.82(6) (short-term) or s.84(7) (long-term); category 1 demerit offence; subsection-to-penalty mapping deferred to counsel.
Read full reference →
NSW · Liquor & Gaming NSW

Registered Clubs Act 1976 (NSW)

Registered Clubs Act 1976 (NSW)

Hold the Annual General Meeting within the prescribed period

Tracks

Registered clubs must hold an AGM each year within the timeframe set by the Act and the club's constitution, with proper notice to members. The AGM is where members receive the annual financial report and elect directors.

Frequency: annual · Binds: board, ceo
Consequence of breach: Breach of Act; potential ILGA action; governance non-compliance flagged on licence reviews.
Read full reference →

Conduct board elections per the constitution

Supports

Director elections must follow the process set out in the club's constitution and the Act. Candidate eligibility (not disqualified under s.30A) and voter eligibility must be verified.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: board, ceo
Consequence of breach: Election irregularities can be challenged; invalid elections may require re-running. ILGA intervention possible.
Read full reference →

Confirm directors are not disqualified

Does (enforced)

A person must not sit as a director if they are bankrupt, disqualified by ILGA, or otherwise ineligible under s.30A. The secretary must confirm eligibility on appointment and at least annually.

Frequency: annual · Binds: board, ceo, director
Consequence of breach: Decisions made by a disqualified director may be invalid; director and club may face penalties.
Read full reference →

Maintain the register of members

Tracks

The club must keep a current register of all members with the particulars required by the Act. The register must be available for inspection by members and regulators per the Act's requirements.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: ceo, board
Consequence of breach: Failure to maintain a proper register is a breach of the Act and compromises member governance rights.
Read full reference →

Disclose and manage related-party transactions

Does (triggered)

Transactions between the club and a director (or an entity a director controls or benefits from) must be declared on the COI register, approved per the constitution, and disclosed to ILGA where required. Unresolved conflicts must not participate in the decision.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: board, director, ceo
Consequence of breach: Undisclosed related-party transactions can void the contract, trigger personal liability for directors, and invite ILGA action.
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Maintain the conflict-of-interest register

External responsibility

Directors, the secretary, and KMPs must declare any conflicts of interest on appointment and have them reviewed at least annually. The register records financial interests, related-party relationships, and personal relationships that could influence decisions. The venue runs and stores its COI register itself; Venue Axis does not host it.

Frequency: annual · Binds: board, director, ceo
Consequence of breach: Undeclared conflicts may invalidate board decisions and expose individual directors to breach-of-duty claims.
Read full reference →

Notify ILGA of notifiable events

Does (triggered)

Specific events — change of secretary, constitutional amendments, amalgamations, insolvency-triggering events — must be notified to ILGA within the prescribed timeframe.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: ceo, board
Consequence of breach: Failure to notify is a breach of the Act and can trigger ILGA inquiry.
Read full reference →

Amend the constitution via the prescribed process

Supports

Amendments to the club's rules or constitution require a members' resolution (special or ordinary depending on the rule) and — where the Act requires — ILGA approval. Records of the resolution and approval must be retained.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: board, ceo
Consequence of breach: Amendments made without proper process are void; ILGA can reject registration of amendments that bypass the Act.
Read full reference →

Prepare and present the annual financial report

Supports

The club must prepare an annual financial report, have it audited where required by the Act, present it at the AGM, and retain it for inspection. This is the members' primary line of sight into club finances.

Frequency: annual · Binds: board, ceo
Consequence of breach: Failure to produce/present is a breach of the Act and undermines member trust; may trigger ILGA scrutiny.
Read full reference →

Make the constitution available to members

Tracks

A member may request a copy of the current constitution; the club must provide it (often for a prescribed fee). The version held must be the current consolidated version including all registered amendments.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: ceo
Consequence of breach: Denial of access is a breach and can be escalated to ILGA.
Read full reference →

Follow the prescribed process for amalgamation or dissolution

Tracks

Amalgamating with another club or winding up operations are major structural decisions with specific statutory steps — member resolutions, ILGA approval, asset disposition rules. The board must follow the Act's process precisely.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: board, ceo
Consequence of breach: Invalid process voids the transaction and can expose directors personally.
Read full reference →

Director board-oversight training — non-small clubs (12 months)

Does (triggered)

Each member of the governing body of a registered club that is not a "small club" must, within 12 months after becoming a member of the governing body, become a fully trained member by completing the prescribed ClubsNSW courses or NVR-RTO units of competency. Cl.21 defines "small club" as a registered club for which annual profit from gaming machines does not exceed $1 million; clubs above that threshold fall under cl.22.

Frequency: annual · Binds: director, ceo, board
Consequence of breach: No express penalty at cl.22 (consistent with the bare-clause pattern carried over from Reg Clubs Reg 2015 cl.26 — predecessor in force ~10 years without a penalty cell). Enforcement under Reg Clubs Act 1976 Part 6A (Disciplinary action). Authority complaint under s.57F(3)(d) ("contravened a provision of this Act or the regulations") → disciplinary powers under s.57H(2): individual director — monetary penalty up to 100 penalty units (s.57H(2)(a1)), removal from office (s.57H(2)(f)), ineligibility declaration (s.57H(2)(g) read with s.57J procedure); club — monetary penalty up to 2,500 penalty units (s.57H(2)(a)), licence-condition variation (s.57H(2)(e)), licence suspension or cancellation (s.57H(2)(b)/(c)), administrator appointment (s.57H(2)(h)). Schedule 1 Note 2 of the 2025 Regulation expressly anchors regulation contraventions to Part 6A. Liquor Act 2007 Part 9 disciplinary track is also available against the club in its capacity as a liquor licensee per Note to Part 6A header.
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Director board-oversight training — small clubs (≥2 fully trained)

Does (triggered)

For a small club (gaming-machine profit ≤ $1M annually), the governing body must include at least 2 fully trained members at all times. If the number of fully trained members falls below 2, the governing body must ensure that within the following 12 months the number is restored to 2 or more by appointing fully trained members or having existing members become fully trained.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: board, ceo
Consequence of breach: Same enforcement mechanism as cl.22 — no express clause-level penalty (consistent with 2015 predecessor). Reg Clubs Act 1976 Part 6A disciplinary regime applies via s.57F(3)(d). Authority disciplinary powers under s.57H(2): up to 2,500 PU on the club (s.57H(2)(a)), licence-condition variation (s.57H(2)(e)), administrator appointment (s.57H(2)(h)) — collective small-club governing-body failures most plausibly attract club-level rather than per-director consequences given the duty is on the body, not on each member individually.
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Secretary/manager training — within 2 years

Does (triggered)

The secretary or manager of a registered club must, within 2 years after becoming the secretary or manager, complete the course "Board Governance, the Company Secretary and the General Manager" conducted by or for The Club Managers Association of Australia. The duty does not apply to a person who is also a member of the governing body (typically because cl.22 or cl.23 already covers them).

Frequency: annual · Binds: gm, ceo
Consequence of breach: Same enforcement mechanism as cl.22/cl.23 — no express clause-level penalty (consistent with 2015 cl.27 predecessor). Reg Clubs Act 1976 Part 6A disciplinary regime via s.57F(3)(d). Disciplinary powers under s.57H(2) against the secretary/manager: monetary penalty up to 100 PU (s.57H(2)(a1)), removal from office (s.57H(2)(f)), ineligibility declaration as secretary (s.57H(2)(g)). The club may also face s.57H(2)(a) up to 2,500 PU and s.57H(2)(e) condition variation if the appointment was knowingly non-compliant.
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Training exemption — qualifications, skills, or work experience

Tracks

A person is not required to complete training under cll.22–24 if the person has qualifications, skills, or work experience specified by the Secretary in guidelines published on the Department's website. The platform exposes the link to the Secretary's published exemption guidelines so the GM can match a director's prior qualifications against the exemption list before triggering the 12-month or 2-year clock.

Frequency: on-event · Binds: ceo, gm
Consequence of breach: Wrongly applied exemption is a non-compliance with cl.22 or cl.24; treated as the underlying training-duty breach and enforced through the Reg Clubs Act 1976 Part 6A disciplinary regime per the s.57H(2) menu set out on those rows. The exemption itself is not a separate offence.
Read full reference →
NSW · Liquor & Gaming NSW

L&GNSW Codes & Guidelines

Liquor & Gaming NSW Codes of Practice and Guidelines

RCG certification — all gaming staff

Does (enforced)

Every person employed in a gaming area must hold a current Responsible Conduct of Gambling (RCG) certificate issued by an L&GNSW-approved provider. Certificates require renewal; the venue's training policy sets the renewal interval.

Frequency: annual · Binds: venue, gm, rgo
Consequence of breach: Fine; potential suspension of gaming licence conditions.
Read full reference →

Advanced RCG certification — gaming managers

Does (enforced)

Gaming managers and designated duty managers are expected to hold the Advanced RCG qualification in addition to the standard RCG. The Advanced RCG covers detailed responsible gambling obligations and harm minimisation practices.

Frequency: annual · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Non-conformance with GPOM requirements; potential condition breach on gaming licence.
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RSA certification — alcohol-serving staff

Does (enforced)

Under the Liquor Act 2007 (NSW), any person who sells, supplies, or serves alcohol must hold a current Responsible Service of Alcohol (RSA) certificate. The statutory renewal period is three years, though many venues require annual refreshers.

Frequency: annual · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Fine under Liquor Act 2007 (NSW); potential licence conditions.
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Mandatory harm minimisation display

Tracks

NSW venues must display prescribed responsible gambling information (including problem gambling helpline details and responsible gambling brochures) in the gaming area. L&GNSW periodically updates approved display materials.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Fine; potential licence condition breach.
Read full reference →
VIC · Victorian Commission for Gambling and Liquor Regulation (VCGLR)

Gambling Regulation Act 2003 (Vic)

Gambling Regulation Act 2003 (Vic) and Victorian Commission for Gambling and Liquor Regulation (VCGLR) requirements

YourPlay pre-commitment — mandatory integration

External responsibility

Victorian venues with more than 20 EGMs must integrate with the YourPlay pre-commitment system. YourPlay allows patrons to set pre-commitment limits on time and money. Mandatory phase-in milestone: October 2028 for remaining venue classes.

Frequency: continuous · Binds: venue, gm
Consequence of breach: Breach of licence conditions; significant fine; potential suspension.
Read full reference →
SA · Liquor and Gambling Commissioner (SA)

Gaming Machines Act 1992 (SA)

Gaming Machines Act 1992 (SA) and Liquor and Gambling Commissioner (SA) requirements

Take it with you

Download the full PDF.

The complete inventory, organised by statutory category, with plain-English summaries and citations. Emailed to you and downloaded immediately. We use that email to follow up once with a working-conversation offer; we don't share your address.

By submitting, you agree we may email the document to you and follow up once. We won't share your address with anyone outside Venue Axis.

Related

Working references.

L&GNSW · the audit document

CL1002: the working surface →

The 75-Part 363-question audit document inspectors walk through, and how Venue Axis is structured around it.

Free tool · CL1002 questions

Explore all 363 CL1002 questions →

The CL1002 companion: every Part, every question, filterable + downloadable as a structured working PDF.

Free tool · Looking forward

Regulatory horizon →

What's active, what's imminent, and what to watch from the international monitor list — the obligations operative today plus the next 12–18 months.

FAQs

About the obligation tree.

What is this?

A free, browseable explorer of the Australian club compliance obligation tree Venue Axis uses internally to map the regulatory surface. Each obligation has a plain-English summary, an authoritative citation, a frequency, who it binds, the consequence of breach, and a strategic-tier label (DOES / SUPPORTS / TRACKS / EXTERNAL_RESPONSIBILITY) that explicitly flags whether the obligation sits inside the platform's scope or outside it.

Where does the data come from?

From the live obligation tree inside the Venue Axis product. We export a sanitised JSON snapshot to this site whenever it materially changes — internal artefact paths, draft verification flags, and product-internal coverage scoring are stripped. The plain-English summaries are drafted by Venue Axis to help operators navigate a large statutory surface; each citation points to the source instrument — verify the cited provision before relying on the summary.

Is this legal advice?

No. The plain-English summaries are working drafts pending counsel review. The citations are authoritative, but the summaries are written for operator clarity, not for legal interpretation. Treat the citation as the source of truth and the plain-English text as a navigation aid. If you need a legal interpretation of any obligation, talk to your counsel.

What does the strategic-tier framework mean?

Four tiers describe how the platform engages with each obligation. DOES_ENFORCED: platform gates a downstream action on this obligation being current. DOES_TRIGGERED: platform initiates the action when conditions are met (TTR/SMR triggers, escalation dispatch). SUPPORTS: platform hosts the workflow + evidence ledger; an external party (counsel, auditor, RGO, vendor) performs the underlying action. TRACKS: platform is the evidence ledger only — it never actuates. EXTERNAL_RESPONSIBILITY: owned by an external party (counsel, auditor, board, regulator) and explicitly out of product scope. EXTERNAL_RESPONSIBILITY items are not roadmap candidates; they are surfaced so an auditor sees the complete regulatory picture.

Why is the EXTERNAL_RESPONSIBILITY tier in here?

Because compliance is the venue's responsibility, not Venue Axis's. Some obligations are owned by counsel, by an auditor, by the board, or by the regulator directly — and surfacing them honestly in the inventory is more useful than pretending the platform covers everything. This is a deliberate position; it means the working surface boundaries are explicit rather than implied. See PRODUCT-SCOPE.md (referenced in our /product page) for the full framework.

Is this the full tree?

It's a working tree currently catalogued at NSW + Commonwealth + a small number of cross-state and industry-code obligations. The full state-by-state inventory (VIC, QLD, ACT, SA, WA, TAS) is being built out via the regulatory inventory sandboxes referenced on /regulatory-horizon. NSW is the largest category in this snapshot; the Commonwealth AML/CTF obligations are also mapped. State coverage will catch up as we calibrate each jurisdiction's obligation tree against its statutes.

How does this relate to L&GNSW CL1002?

CL1002 is the L&GNSW 75-Part Club Licence Self-Audit Checklist that inspectors walk through on the day. The obligation tree below is the underlying inventory; CL1002 is the customer-language artefact that maps onto it. Most CL1002 questions are answered by one or more obligations in this tree, but CL1002's structure follows the regulator's audit flow rather than statutory order. See /cl1002 for the CL1002 frame and /cl1002-explorer for the full 75-Part question explorer.

Can I download the whole tree?

Yes — the form below produces a PDF of the full inventory, organised by statutory category, with the same plain-English summaries and citations. It's emailed to you and downloaded immediately. We use that email to follow up once with a working conversation offer; we don't share your address with anyone outside Venue Axis.

See it wired into a working venue.

The browseable tree and the PDF are the inventory. The in-product working surface adds live evidence linkage, CL1002 alignment, and freshness scoring on top. First three months free, no card up front.